Do you think changing the definitions would suffice, so that the sets are distinct? I think that would be fair. AY has said before he's obviously considering humans as distinct from animals in his argument.You actually found a flaw here in P2. Indeed if you consider the set of human to be included in the set of animals ( which it is ), the trait t can't satisfy both propositions you mentioned. If we take a human X, then A(X) => t ∉ T(X) will impose the constraint that the Human X do not have the trait while at the same time looking for the same trait if we instantiate y = X. So we must either :
Consider human to be non animals ( no inclusion )
Adding a proposition/predicate that will ensure the trait is taken out of the set A(x)\H(x) ( interestingly enough I found in my notes back then that I did something similar.
Thanks for spotting that I will add it to the wiki when I have time, unless you want to take a crack at it![]()
Also, do you agree with me that the flaw is present in the original argument as well (that 'human cannot be absent in a human', provided possessing 'human' makes one human)? Because in that case we would be justified from excluding it from the set of traits.
This may be an idea. I haven't had the chance to look into fully but I will very soon.Adding a proposition/predicate that will ensure the trait is taken out of the set A(x)\H(x) ( interestingly enough I found in my notes back then that I did something similar.
My meaning was some sort of time permitting logic so we could say something like 'H(x) then -H(x)', something like that.Curious to know what you mean here.
I think we could probably show in the case that we allow 'being part of the set of humans' to be a trait, then P2 becomes vacuously true. And if we don't allow it to be a trait, we can simply point to the moral system 'humans have moral value, nonhumans do not', to show that C does not follow from P1&P2
EDIT: Attempted to show this on the wiki, would love to hear any thoughts on it